0 of 1217 Questions completed
Questions:
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading…
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You must first complete the following:
0 of 1217 Questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 point(s), (0)
Earned Point(s): 0 of 0, (0)
0 Essay(s) Pending (Possible Point(s): 0)
The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
(Refer to figure 22, area 1.)
The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are
In what airspace is Onawa, IA (K36) located?
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight isvDuring operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
All operations within Class C airspace must be
When flying, pain in the ears, sinuses, and abdomen and decompression sickness is caused by
Aircraft brakes are located on which wheels?
Newton’s second law of motion states that when a force is applied to a mass, the mass will
You are on the ramp and a ramp person is giving you this hand signal. What does this mean?
Which of these aircraft can transmit and receive at the greatest distance?
The four forces acting on an aircraft in forward flight are
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
VS0 is defined as the
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
(Refer to figure 25, area 7.)
The Class D airspace overlying Collin Co RGL McKinney (TKI) extends from the surface to …
Four ways to minimize the effects of motion sickness are to reduce stress and anxiety, schedule flights to avoid turbulent conditions, open fresh air vents, and
What does the “A” in the memory aid ARROW stand for?
What kind of planform does this airplane have?
You are approaching this airport for landing. What do the markings on the runway mean?
You are approaching the Prescott airport, and the tower is closed. How should you communicate your intentions for landing?
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
VNO is defined as the
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
One of the purposes for issuing a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) is to
(Refer to Figure 59, area 3.)
The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
How does fatigue affect pilot performance?
What happens during the exhaust stroke of the reciprocating engine operating cycle?
Which of the following wing design features ensures that the wing roots stall before the wingtips so the ailerons remain effective during recovery?
You are nearing your destination on a long cross-country flight. The sun set more than two hours ago, and in the distance you see an airport beacon alternating between a green flash and two quick white flashes. What type of airport does this beacon indicate?
What types of services can ATC provide in an emergency?
In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
What are the risks of operating an airplane under the influence of alcohol?
What are the two cockpit controls that control the air and fuel introduced into the engine cylinders?
What is the difference between static and dynamic stability?
Which is a description of LAHSO visual aids?
Refer to the Airport/Facility Directory entry for Charles M Schulz – Sonoma County Airport. Which of the following statements is correct?
What type of stability does the horizontal stabilizer provide during flight?
Refer to Figure: Figure 68 – Wind Triangle
The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at
(Refer to figure 2.)
If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
Where can you find information about operating in an MOA along your planned route of flight?
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
(Refer to Figure 71, point 1.)
The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (E36) is at
Figure 26, area 2
The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are
If you are using a drug, what process should you follow before flying?
How can carburetor icing be remedied?
The three axes of rotation are longitudinal, vertical, and
What radio navigation aid and frequency are represented in this chart excerpt?
What is an example of information associated with a Chart Supplement section?
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
(Refer to figure 72.)
The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
The upper limits of Class D airspace are depicted
(Refer to Figure 26, area 1.)
Identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
What actions do you need to take to plan for practicing flight maneuvers and procedures?
What is the purpose of the discharge nozzles in the fuel injection system?
What is the most dangerous CG position that could result in the loss of longitudinal stability?
What is the highest spot elevation depicted on this chart excerpt?
Which NOTAM(D) codes cover surfaces on an airport?
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
(Refer to figure 1.) The acute angle ‘A’ is the angle of
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited?
A pilot approaching to land at a class D airport in a turbine-powered airplane on a runway served by a VASI shall
What are the steps in the positive exchange of flight controls procedure?
What does the air compression provided by supercharging and turbocharging enable the aircraft to do?
Which airfoil design helps maintain the center of lift aft of the CG?
What elevation is specified by the maximum elevation figure in this chart quadrangle?
Refer to Figure: Figure 72 – Velocity vs. G-loads
The positive limit load factor is represented by the
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
(Refer to Figure 68.)
The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents
(Refer to Figure 68.)
The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
What are the elements of the passenger briefing that you should perform prior to the flight?
How can you test the individual operation of the magnetos?
In a climb, weight consists of
Which of the following is the approximate latitude and longitude of the Air Park South airport near the city of Ozark?
The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
When flying from one airport to another with calm wind, the airspeed closest to the ground speed will be
(Refer to Figure 80.)
What do the blue shaded lines indicate throughout this sectional excerpt?
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
What elements should you include in a takeoff briefing?
What is the most common fuel grade for general aviation training aircraft?
How does a stabilized descent affect the weight vectors?
Which altimeter indicates the correct setting for operating in Class A airspace?
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the aircraft to
Recovery from a stall requires
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Refer to Figure: Figure 92 – Minimum In-Flight Visibility and Distance from Clouds
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
What are the elements of the before-landing briefing?
What is the barometric pressure and temperature for a standard ISA atmosphere at sea level?
At a given weight, the best glide speed of an aircraft corresponds to
Which chart depicts a Victor airway with a distance of more than 210 miles between VOR radio stations?
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
An aircraft airfoil is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the
What force makes an airplane turn?
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
SRM concepts that enhance your ability to make effective decisions in the flight environment can be organized into what five categories?
The airspeed indicator compares what two pressures to determine air speed?
If you maintain the best glide speed in a power-off glide (no wind), how will extending the landing gear affect the gliding distance?
At which airport can you obtain a special VFR clearance?
Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the
(Refer to figure 72.)
The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
What are three SRM concepts that apply to PIC responsibility?
What is the V-speed for the maximum structural cruising speed?
Which aircraft has the proper configuration of aircraft position lights?
Select the true statement regarding obtaining TFR information.
Refer to Figure: Figure 2 – Load Factor Chart
If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
(Refer to figure 2.)
If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle between the
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
What are three SRM concepts that apply to effective communication?
What does AGL refer to?
Which way is this airplane traveling?
Which are requirements for operating under VFR near and within the Washington DC SFRA?
What is the best indicator to the pilot of the load factor on the airplane?
What is ground effect?
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
(Refer to Figure 69.)
What minimum equipment is required for a flight from Kleberg Co. Airport (area 7) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3)?
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
What are the three primary types of materials used in airplane construction?
In most cases, where can you obtain altimeter setting information?
What is the minimum safe altitude over a congested area, such as a city or metropolitan area?
Select the true statement regarding ADS-B system components.
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
(Refer to Figure 68.)
The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents
(Refer Figure 26.)
In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip (area 2) the weather minimums at 2,000 feet AGL are
Refer to Figure: Figure 92 – Minimum In-Flight Visibility and Distance from Clouds
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
In addition to wire-braced wings, what identifies open truss structure?
What do the length and orientation of a vector arrow represent?
What should you do differently when taxiing a tailwheel aircraft in a headwind as opposed to a tricycle-gear aircraft?
Which ATC instruction applies to this transponder?
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle?
A propeller rotating clockwise, as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the aircraft to the
The airspace system designations used throughout the United States
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
Which empennage component controls yawing movement of the airplane about its vertical axis?
What happens to an airplane in unaccelerated flight if one or more of the four forces changes?
You are on the ramp and a ramp person is giving you this hand signal. What does this mean?
Which is true regarding ATC services?
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a wide geographic area, the pilot should refer to
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than
If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
(Refer to figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
(Refer to figure 20, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
What are characteristics of unstable air?
Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
(Refer to figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter is likely to result in
(Refer to Appendix A, Figure 12). The remarks section for KMDW has “RAB35” listed. This entry means
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
(Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in western central Kentucky is due to low
(Refer to figure 48.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
How fast are you flying if you travel 18 miles in 8 minutes?
On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you
(Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates
(Refer to figure 48.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of “antiauthority”?
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
When density altitude is beyond capability as indicated on the performance chart,
What is meant by the term ‘dewpoint’?
(Refer to figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
Uncontrolled airspace is
Airport diagrams can be used to enhance positional awareness while on the airport surface. Airport diagrams can be found on
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
(Refer to figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
A private pilot acting as pilot in command, operating under the provisions of BasicMed is limited to an altitude of
(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude: 7,500 ft Headwind: 8 kts Temperature: 32°F Runway: Hard surface
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 22.) Weather information is available at the Coeur d’Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
While in cruise flight, a small fire burns the insulation from a transceiver wire and then puts itself out. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
(Refer to figure 21.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from
An approved (standard nylon) chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at sea level is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F?
(Refer to figure 62.) In flying the rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft’s position, the aircraft must have a
A pilot can develop good judgment
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
(Refer to figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
(Refer to figure 18.) The IFR weather in northern Texas is due to
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
(Refer to figure 22, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
(Refer to figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the susceptability of dehydration since the
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
Climb performance depends upon the
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
What is the significance of solid green lines on the surface prognostic panels of low-level significant weather prognostic charts?
(Refer to figure 48.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2016. The next inspection will be due no later than
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
Determine the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).
You have just gone off of the runway and broken a runway light. You must make a report to the nearest NTSB field office
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
(Refer to figure 48.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
(Refer to figure 22, area 2; and figure 31.) At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
(Refer to figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as
(Refer to figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include:
(Refer to figure 82.) Altimeter 3 indicates
To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have a course completion certificate that was issued by an approved medical training course provider within the past …
(Refer to figure 36.) With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
Some of the characteristics you would expect to see with an unstable air mass are
What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z on the 13th until the end of the forecast?
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?
Which publication contains explanations of airport signs and markings?
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).