The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the

white arc
green arc
yellow arc

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

VFE.
VFC.
VLOF.

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.

What is one purpose of wing flaps?
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.

(Refer to figure 22, area 1.)

The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
1 mile and clear of clouds.
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

(Refer to Figure 78.)

In what airspace is Onawa, IA (K36) located?

Class E.
Class G.
Class D.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight isvDuring operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

500 feet.
1,500 feet.
1,000 feet.

All operations within Class C airspace must be

in an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability and in communication with the responsible ATC facility.
on a flight plan filed prior to arrival or departure.
in accordance with instrument flight rules.

When flying, pain in the ears, sinuses, and abdomen and decompression sickness is caused by

atmospheric pressure changes.
the effect of motion on the inner ear.
G forces.

Aircraft brakes are located on which wheels?

Main wheels
All wheels
Third wheel only

Newton’s second law of motion states that when a force is applied to a mass, the mass will

accelerate.
change direction
resist motion until inertia and friction are overcome.

You are on the ramp and a ramp person is giving you this hand signal. What does this mean?

Emergency Stop
Stop
Come Ahead

Which of these aircraft can transmit and receive at the greatest distance?

D
A
B and C

The four forces acting on an aircraft in forward flight are

lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
lift, gravity, power, and friction.
lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.
Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

To control roll.
To control overbanking tendency.
To control yaw.

V_S0 is defined as the

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.

An alert area is an area in which

the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.
the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

(Refer to figure 25, area 7.)

The Class D airspace overlying Collin Co RGL McKinney (TKI) extends from the surface to …

2,500 feet MSL.
2,900 feet MSL.
700 feet AGL.

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all tower controlled airports

regardless of weather conditions.
only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Four ways to minimize the effects of motion sickness are to reduce stress and anxiety, schedule flights to avoid turbulent conditions, open fresh air vents, and

focus on objects outside the aircraft.
focus on objects in the cabin.
place your head below your elbows.

What does the “A” in the memory aid ARROW stand for?

Airworthiness certificate
Aircraft
AFM

What kind of planform does this airplane have?

Combination rectangular/tapered
Tapered
Sweptback

You are approaching this airport for landing. What do the markings on the runway mean?

The runway is closed to all traffic.
The runway is closed to commercial traffic.
The runway is closed to general aviation traffic.

You are approaching the Prescott airport, and the tower is closed. How should you communicate your intentions for landing?

Communicate on CTAF 125.3.
Communicate on the MULTICOM frequency 127.2.
Communicate on UNICOM frequency 128.45.

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

position of the CG.
speed of the airplane.
abruptness at which the load is applied.

To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

V_NO is defined as the

normal operating range.
never-exceed speed.
maximum structural cruising speed.

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

light, quartering tailwind.
light, quartering headwind.
strong headwind.

One of the purposes for issuing a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) is to

announce Parachute Jump Areas.
protect public figures.
identify Airport Advisory Areas.

(Refer to Figure 59, area 3.)

The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is

Class E airspace from 700 feet AGL.
surface area Class E airspace.
Class E airspace from 1,200 feet AGL.

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

4,000 feet AGL.
1,200 feet AGL.
3,000 feet AGL.

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots.
180 knots.
250 knots.

How does fatigue affect pilot performance?

Degrades concentration, impairs coordination, and decreases the ability to communicate
Improves concentration, causes airsickness, and impairs communication
Increases adrenaline, and increases heart rate, respiration, and perspiration

What happens during the exhaust stroke of the reciprocating engine operating cycle?

Burned gases are forced out of the cylinder.
The piston is driven away from the cylinder head.
The intake valve closes and the piston moves back toward the cylinder head

Which of the following wing design features ensures that the wing roots stall before the wingtips so the ailerons remain effective during recovery?

Wing twist
Wing root fairings
Aileron gap seals

You are nearing your destination on a long cross-country flight. The sun set more than two hours ago, and in the distance you see an airport beacon alternating between a green flash and two quick white flashes. What type of airport does this beacon indicate?

Military
Civilian
General aviation airport

What types of services can ATC provide in an emergency?

Airport, weather, and terrain information, vectoring and escort services, priority landing
Vectoring to avoid IFR conditions, airport information, sequencing with IFR traffic
Airport information, instruction in IFR flight, traffic information

In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?

High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.

Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s

lift/drag ratio.
lifting capacity.
aerodynamic balance and controllability.

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

increase if the CG is moved forward.
change with an increase in gross weight.
remain the same regardless of gross weight.

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

Constant altitude and airspeed.
Constant angle of attack.
Level flight attitude.

Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should

contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories.
contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

10,000 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

What are the risks of operating an airplane under the influence of alcohol?

Impaired judgment and reduced coordination.
Hyperactive reflexes.
There are no risks involved.

What are the two cockpit controls that control the air and fuel introduced into the engine cylinders?

Throttle and mixture control
Throttle and tachometer
Mixture control and tachometer

What is the difference between static and dynamic stability?

Static stability is an airplane's initial response after a disturbance disrupts its equilibrium, while dynamic stability is how an airplane responds over time.
Static stability is how an airplane responds over time after a disturbance disrupts its equilibrium, while dynamic stability is the airplane's initial response.
Static stability applies to an airplane in equilibrium, while dynamic stability is how an airplane responds when its equilibrium is disturbed.

Which is a description of LAHSO visual aids?

Yellow hold short markings; holding position signs—white text on a red background; white, pulsing, in-pavement lighting
Yellow chevrons leading to the hold short point; holding position signs—white text on a red background; white, pulsing, in-pavement lighting
Yellow hold short markings; location signs—yellow text on a black background; white, pulsing, in-pavement lighting

Refer to the Airport/Facility Directory entry for Charles M Schulz – Sonoma County Airport. Which of the following statements is correct?

Both runways are composed of grooved asphalt.
This airport is not approved for LAHSO operations.
Santa Rosa Tower closes at 2200 local time.

What type of stability does the horizontal stabilizer provide during flight?

Airspeed.
Longitudinal.
Lateral.

Refer to Figure: Figure 68 – Wind Triangle

The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents

wind direction and velocity.
true course and groundspeed.
true heading and airspeed.

Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at

twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.
less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
a higher-than-normal angle of attack.

(Refer to figure 2.)

If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

2,300 pounds.
4,600 pounds.
3,400 pounds.

Where can you find information about operating in an MOA along your planned route of flight?

Sectional chart.
Chart supplement.
Aeronautical Information Manual.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

1 mile.
4 miles.
3 miles.

(Refer to Figure 71, point 1.)

The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (E36) is at

the surface.
700 feet AGL.
3,823 feet MSL.

Figure 26, area 2

The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

1 mile and clear of clouds
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds
3 miles and clear of clouds.

If you are using a drug, what process should you follow before flying?

Perform a self-assessment, obtain an aviation medical examiner's approval, and verify FAA approval of the drug.
Determine whether the drug is a depressant or a stimulant and obtain FAA approval of the drug.
Determine the drug classification and whether the drug is over-the-counter or a prescription.

How can carburetor icing be remedied?

Apply full carburetor heat.
Richen the fuel/air mixture.
Reduce engine power

The three axes of rotation are longitudinal, vertical, and

lateral.
rotational.
center of gravity.

What radio navigation aid and frequency are represented in this chart excerpt?

NDB, 359
VORTAC, 122.8
NDB-DME, 344

What is an example of information associated with a Chart Supplement section?

Airport Diagrams—information about several runway incursion hot spots at an airport.
This airport is not approved for LAHSO operations.
Santa Rosa Tower closes at 2200 local time.

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

remain the same regardless of altitude.
decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
decrease as the true airspeed increases.

(Refer to figure 72.)

The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the

ultimate load factor.
positive limit load factor.
airspeed range for normal operations.

An airplane said to be inherently stable will

not spin.
require less effort to control.
be difficult to stall.

The upper limits of Class D airspace are depicted

on the sectional chart as feet MSL
in the Chart Supplements U.S. in feet MSL and feet AGL.
on the sectional chart as feet AGL

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
Class D airspace.
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

(Refer to Figure 26, area 1.)

Identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport

Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace – 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace – 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.

What actions do you need to take to plan for practicing flight maneuvers and procedures?

Determine an appropriate altitude and location for practice; determine the maneuver and procedure steps and appropriate airplane configurations using the pilot's operating handbook (POH) and your training materials
Memorize all of the flight procedures for your airplane and determine operating restrictions near the airport using the pilot's operating handbook (POH).
Determine an appropriate altitude and location for practice by calling air traffic control; determine the maneuver and procedure steps and appropriate airplane configurations using the regulations.

What is the purpose of the discharge nozzles in the fuel injection system?

To inject the fuel/air mixture directly into each cylinder head
To meter fuel based upon the mixture control setting
To transfer fuel from the tank to the fuel control unit

What is the most dangerous CG position that could result in the loss of longitudinal stability?

A CG that is in an extreme aft position
A CG that is in a slight forward position
CG position does not affect stability.

What is the highest spot elevation depicted on this chart excerpt?

8,295 feet MSL
8,196 feet MSL
8,134 feet MSL

Which NOTAM(D) codes cover surfaces on an airport?

TWY, RWY, APRON, RAMP
APRON, RAMP, OBST
TWY, RWY, APRON, RAMP, AD

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

operating at high airspeeds.
heavily loaded.
developing lift.

(Refer to figure 1.) The acute angle ‘A’ is the angle of

attack.
dihedral.
incidence.

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

VA
VA
VNE

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

VY.
Va.
VX.

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

With the controlling agency's authorization.
When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL.
3,000 feet AGL.
1,000 feet AGL.

In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited?

Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL.
Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL.
Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.

A pilot approaching to land at a class D airport in a turbine-powered airplane on a runway served by a VASI shall

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.

What are the steps in the positive exchange of flight controls procedure?

1. The pilot passing control says, "You have the flight controls," and continues to fly the airplane. 2. The pilot taking control says, "I have the flight controls," and moves the control stick to confirm. 3. The pilot passing control says, "You have the flight controls," releases the flight controls, and visually verifies that the other pilot has the flight controls.
1. The pilot passing control says, "You have the flight controls," and releases the controls. 2. The pilot taking control says, "You have the flight controls," and moves the control stick to confirm. 3. The pilot passing control says, "I have the flight controls," takes the flight controls, and visually verifies that the other pilot does not have the flight controls.
1. The pilot passing control says, "You have the flight controls." 2. The pilot taking control moves the control stick slightly to provide a physical confirmation of the exchange

What does the air compression provided by supercharging and turbocharging enable the aircraft to do?

Produce sea-level power at higher altitudes where the air is less dense
Gain fuel efficiency at lower altitudes
Produce less engine exhaust at lower altitudes

Which airfoil design helps maintain the center of lift aft of the CG?

Sweepback
Dihedral
Camber

What elevation is specified by the maximum elevation figure in this chart quadrangle?

12,800 feet MSL
1,280 feet MSL
12,008 feet MSL

Refer to Figure: Figure 72 – Velocity vs. G-loads

The positive limit load factor is represented by the

vertical dashed line from E to F.
vertical solid line from D to G.
horizontal dashed line from C to E.

Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?

Settling to the surface abruptly during landing.
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs.

(Refer to Figure 68.)

The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents

wind direction and velocity.
true course and groundspeed.
true heading and groundspeed.

(Refer to Figure 68.)

The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents

airspeed and heading
groundspeed and true course.
true heading and groundspeed.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.
The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class C.
Class A.
Class B.

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.

What are the elements of the passenger briefing that you should perform prior to the flight?

How and when to fasten safety belts, air vent location and operation, fire extinguisher location and operation, egress and emergency operation of doors and windows, traffic and talking including use of headsets, your questions (passenger questions)
Wind direction and velocity, runway length and conditions, takeoff distance, initial heading, initial altitude, takeoff and climb speeds, departure procedures, emergency plan in case of an engine failure after takeoff, pilot and co-pilot responsibilities
Operation of critical airplane systems, airspace location, flight plan information, egress and emergency operation of doors and windows, traffic position and altitude, your fitness for flight

How can you test the individual operation of the magnetos?

Alternate the ignition switch from the BOTH position to RIGHT and to LEFT, and observe a drop in r.p.m.
Switch the master electrical switch off to see if the ignition system still operates.
This cannot be tested with the engine running

In a climb, weight consists of

one component acting 90 degrees to the flight path and a rearward component opposing thrust.
one component directly opposing lift and a forward component opposing drag.
one component acting in the same direction as thrust.

Which of the following is the approximate latitude and longitude of the Air Park South airport near the city of Ozark?

37º4'N 93º14'W
93º14'N 37º4'W
37º1'N 93º12'W

The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle

between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
between the airplane’s climb angle and the horizon.
formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing.

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

VLE.
VFE.
VLO.

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

Climbs.
Stalls.
Turns.

When flying from one airport to another with calm wind, the airspeed closest to the ground speed will be

True Airspeed (TAS).
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS).
Indicated Airspeed (IAS).

(Refer to Figure 80.)

What do the blue shaded lines indicate throughout this sectional excerpt?

Military training routes.
Airline corridors.
Victor airways.

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

20 nautical miles.
15 nautical miles.
5 nautical miles.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

14,500 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

Class E.
Class C.
Class G.

What elements should you include in a takeoff briefing?

Wind direction and velocity, runway length and conditions, takeoff distance, initial heading, initial altitude, takeoff and climb speeds, departure procedures, emergency plan in case of an engine failure after takeoff, pilot and co-pilot responsibilities
Forecast wind direction and velocity, runway length and conditions, climb distance, initial heading, traffic pattern altitude, takeoff and climb speeds, abnormal procedures, emergency plan in case of an engine failure during cruise flight, pilot and co-pilot responsibilities
Airport information and weather conditions, active runway, terrain and obstacles, airport elevation and pattern altitude, traffic pattern entry

What is the most common fuel grade for general aviation training aircraft?

100 low lead
87
Jet A

How does a stabilized descent affect the weight vectors?

Weight consists of two components: one acting perpendicular to the flight path, and the other acting forward along the flight path.
One component of weight shifts rearward.
The weight vector is not affected in stabilized descending flight.

Which altimeter indicates the correct setting for operating in Class A airspace?

A
B
C

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

When at high angles of attack.
When at high airspeeds.
When at low angles of attack.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

Inward, upward, and around each tip.
Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
Outward, upward, and around each tip.

During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the aircraft to

stall at a higher airspeed.
be more difficult to control.
have a tendency to spin.

Recovery from a stall requires

increasing airspeed.
increasing power.
decreasing angle of attack.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Private, Recreational, or Sport Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Private, Recreational, or Sport Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Refer to Figure: Figure 92 – Minimum In-Flight Visibility and Distance from Clouds

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

3 miles; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.
1 mile; clear of clouds.
1 mile; 500 feet above; 1,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

What are the elements of the before-landing briefing?

Airport information and weather conditions, active runway, terrain and obstacles, airport elevation and pattern altitude, and traffic pattern entry
Airspace requirements, active runway, terrain and obstacle regulations, airport elevation and pattern altitude, and after-landing checklist
Forecast weather conditions, systems failure procedures, terrain and obstacles, airport elevation and pattern altitude, and taxi procedures

What is the barometric pressure and temperature for a standard ISA atmosphere at sea level?

Barometric pressure = 29.92 in. Hg. (1013.2 mb); temperature = 15°C (59°F).
Barometric pressure = 14.7 in. Hg. (1013.2 mb); temperature = 15°C (59°F)
Barometric pressure = 29.92 in. Hg.(1000 mb); temperature = 10°C (50° F).

At a given weight, the best glide speed of an aircraft corresponds to

L/Dmax.
C/Lmax.
the design maneuvering speed

Which chart depicts a Victor airway with a distance of more than 210 miles between VOR radio stations?

A
B
C

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced
The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.

An aircraft airfoil is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the airfoil`s surface.
vacuum below the airfoil`s surface and greater air pressure above the airfoil`s surface.
higher air pressure below the airfoil`s surface and lower air pressure above the airfoil`s surface.

What force makes an airplane turn?

The vertical component of lift.
Centrifugal force.
The horizontal component of lift.

How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?

Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.
Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability.
Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.

The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

10 NM.
20 NM.
30 NM.

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).
Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

when the associated control tower is in operation.
when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

SRM concepts that enhance your ability to make effective decisions in the flight environment can be organized into what five categories?

Pilot-in-Command Responsibility, Resource Use, Workload Management, Effective Communication, and Situational Awareness
Flight Planning, Flight Environment, Programming, Situational Awareness, and Accident Prevention
Pilot-in-Command Fitness, Passengers, Avionics Management, Effective Communication, and Flight Environment

The airspeed indicator compares what two pressures to determine air speed?

Ram air pressure and static air pressure
Relative pressure and calm air
Ram air pressure and calm air

If you maintain the best glide speed in a power-off glide (no wind), how will extending the landing gear affect the gliding distance?

It will reduce the gliding distance.
It will have no effect on the gliding distance.
It will increase the gliding distance.

At which airport can you obtain a special VFR clearance?

A
B
C

Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the

pitch angle of an airfoil.
direction of the relative wind.
rotor plane of rotation.

(Refer to figure 72.)

The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the

upper limit of the yellow arc
upper limit of the green arc
blue radial line

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of

lift.
attack.
incidence.

What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.
A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.
Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.
Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate
The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

250 knots.
280 knots.
200 knots.

What are three SRM concepts that apply to PIC responsibility?

Self assessment, crew coordination, and continuing aviation education
Instructor assessment, preflight planning, and procedures checklists
Maneuvers proficiency, knowledge test assessment, and crew coordination

What is the V-speed for the maximum structural cruising speed?

VNO
VFE
VSO

Which aircraft has the proper configuration of aircraft position lights?

B
A
C

Select the true statement regarding obtaining TFR information.

TFRs are established by NOTAMs, which contain information such as the TFR area dimensions and effective altitudes, type or reason for the TFR, and operating restrictions and requirements.
TFR areas are shown on sectional charts. The chart panel provides information such as effective altitudes, type or reason for the TFR, and operating restrictions and requirements.
ATC establishes TFRs that affect areas under their control and relay information to pilots by a special ATIS broadcast; which includes TFR area dimensions and effective altitudes, type or reason for the TFR, and operating restrictions and requirements.

Refer to Figure: Figure 2 – Load Factor Chart

If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

1,200 pounds.
3,100 pounds.
3,960 pounds.

(Refer to figure 2.)

If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

6,750 pounds.
7,200 pounds.
4,500 pounds.

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.
sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
rise into the traffic pattern.

The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle between the

chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
airplane's longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil.
airplane`s center line and the relative wind.

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

250 knots.
200 knots
288 knots.

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 3,000 feet horizontally.
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally
remain clear of clouds.

What are three SRM concepts that apply to effective communication?

Radio techniques to avoid errors, cockpit/cabin communication, and communication barriers
Normal checklists, normal procedures, and communication barriers
Communication barriers, flight plan procedures, and communication checklists

What does AGL refer to?

Height above the ground
Mean barometric pressure
Adjusted atmospheric pressure

Which way is this airplane traveling?

Crossing from right to left
Crossing from left to right
Toward you

Which are requirements for operating under VFR near and within the Washington DC SFRA?

Between 60 NM and 30 NM from the Washington (DCA) VOR—FAA Special Awareness Training; maximum speed of 230 knots
Between 60 NM and 30 NM from the Washington (DCA) VOR—FAA Special Awareness Training; maximum speed of 230 knots; SFRA flight plan
Within 30 NM of the Washington (DCA) VOR—GA flight is prohibited.

What is the best indicator to the pilot of the load factor on the airplane?

How firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver.
Amount of pressure required to operate the controls.
Airspeed when pulling out of a descent.

What is ground effect?

The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an aircraft.
The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an aircraft.
The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an aircraft to the point where the wings will no longer support the aircraft in flight.

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

heavy, dirty, and fast.
heavy, clean, and slow.
light, dirty, and fast

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise.
gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was applied.

(Refer to Figure 69.)

What minimum equipment is required for a flight from Kleberg Co. Airport (area 7) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3)?

ADS-B.
Two-way radio equipment.
Two-way radio and Mode C transponder with altitude reporting equipment.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

60.
90.
70.

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than

7 miles.
5 miles.
3 miles.

What are the three primary types of materials used in airplane construction?

Fabric, aluminum, composite
Plastic, fabric, plywood
Aluminum, metal, cloth

In most cases, where can you obtain altimeter setting information?

From the nearest reporting station
From other flight instruments
From the weather briefing at your departing airport

What is the minimum safe altitude over a congested area, such as a city or metropolitan area?

1,000 feet above any obstacle within 2,000 feet of your aircraft
2,000 feet above any obstacle within 1,000 feet of your aircraft
500 feet above any obstacle

Select the true statement regarding ADS-B system components.

ADS-B In receives the lateral position, altitude, and velocity of transmitting aircraft and presents this data on the CDTI.
ADS-B Out receives the lateral position, altitude, and velocity of transmitting aircraft and presents this data on the CDTI
ADS-B Out receives signals from an aircraft and displays the aircraft lateral position, altitude, and velocity to controllers.

During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

Both wings are stalled.
Only the left wing is stalled.
Neither wing is stalled.

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

VY.
VA.
VX.

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

Partially stalled with one wing low.
Stalled.
In a steep diving spiral.

(Refer to Figure 68.)

The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents

wind direction and velocity.
true course and groundspeed.
true heading and groundspeed.

(Refer Figure 26.)

In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip (area 2) the weather minimums at 2,000 feet AGL are

1 statute mile visibility.
3 statute miles visibility.
No visibility minimums; remain clear of clouds.

Refer to Figure: Figure 92 – Minimum In-Flight Visibility and Distance from Clouds

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

1 mile; 2,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal; 500 feet below.
3 miles; clear of clouds.
1 mile; clear of clouds.

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver.
an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
instruments and equipment required for IFR operations

In addition to wire-braced wings, what identifies open truss structure?

Clearly visible struts
Spar supported structure
Open area under each wing

What do the length and orientation of a vector arrow represent?

Magnitude and direction
Speed and force
Time and distance

What should you do differently when taxiing a tailwheel aircraft in a headwind as opposed to a tricycle-gear aircraft?

Hold the elevator control aft
Hold the elevator control forward.
Nothing. You should follow the same procedures for both aircraft types in a headwind.

Which ATC instruction applies to this transponder?

Ident
Squawk VFR and Ident
Stop Altitude Squawk

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

When the aircraft is accelerating.
During unaccelerated flight.
When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.

Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle?

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward.
Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

centrifugal force.
the vertical lift component.
the horizontal lift component.

A propeller rotating clockwise, as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the aircraft to the

right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.

The airspace system designations used throughout the United States

makes our airspace system more complex than it is in other countries.
standardizes airspace classifications with other countri
separates all IFR and VFR operations.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

1,500 feet AGL.
1,000 feet AGL.1,000 feet AGL.
2,000 feet AGL.

Which empennage component controls yawing movement of the airplane about its vertical axis?

Rudder
Elevator
Stabilator

What happens to an airplane in unaccelerated flight if one or more of the four forces changes?

There will be an acceleration in the direction of the stronger force until the opposing forces are again in equilibrium
The aircraft will accelerate until it reaches its maximum level flight speed.
The opposing forces will tend to diminish in exact proportion to the increase in the changed forces.

You are on the ramp and a ramp person is giving you this hand signal. What does this mean?

Cut Engine
Start Engine
Emergency Stop

Which is true regarding ATC services?

ATC issues a safety alert if your aircraft is in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
ATC assumes responsibility for collision avoidance when issuing a traffic advisory.
A clearance to operate in Class B airspace relieves you of the responsibility to maintain VFR weather conditions.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
higher-than-normal oil pressure.
the mixture set too rich.

To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a wide geographic area, the pilot should refer to

Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA).
Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF).
Satellite Maps.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
Airship.
Glider.

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

landing.
taxiing and landing.
taxiing and takeoff.

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

September 30, 2015.
September 1, 2016.
September 30, 2016.

If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from

019° and 12 knots.
200° and 13 knots.
246° and 13 knots.

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A forced landing due to engine failure.
Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
Flight control system malfunction or failure.

(Refer to figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is

100 Knots.
165 Knots.
208 Knots.

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

landing.
taxiing and landing.
taxiing and takeoff.

(Refer to figure 20, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

36°24’N – 76°01’W.
36°48’N – 76°01’W.
47°24’N – 75°58’W.

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

Pilot in command.
Air Traffic Controller.
Second in command.

What are characteristics of unstable air?

Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
Turbulence and good surface visibility.

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim.
Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Runway identification and course guidance.
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
Lateral course guidance to the runway.

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

Checklists.
Flying outside the envelope.
Situation awareness.

(Refer to figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is

100 Knots.
165 Knots.
208 Knots.

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
Only when passengers are carried.

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

the actual altitude above sea level.
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter is likely to result in

rain.
fog.
frost.

(Refer to Appendix A, Figure 12). The remarks section for KMDW has “RAB35” listed. This entry means

blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM.
rain began at 1835Z.
the barometer has risen .35″ Hg.

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

all flight conditions.
takeoffs and landings.
flight in turbulent air.

You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should

provide the number of occupants on board.
identify yourself as a pilot.
begin with your route of flight.

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

improved engine performance.
uniform heat distribution.
balanced cylinder head pressure.

(Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in western central Kentucky is due to low

ceiling and visibility.
ceiling.
visibility.

(Refer to figure 48.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

“A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may be used only as an overrun.
“A” may be used only for taxiing; “E” may be used for all operations except landings.
“A” may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; “E” may be used only as an overrun.

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

Registration Certificate.
aircraft maintenance records.
Airworthiness Certificate.

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
Constantly except in starting the engine.

How fast are you flying if you travel 18 miles in 8 minutes?

60 miles per hour.
135 miles per hour.
180 miles per hour.

On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you

must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.
should notify the NTSB within 10 days.
must file a NASA report immediately.

(Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates

1,500 feet.
500 feet.
10,500 feet.

(Refer to figure 48.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

“A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may be used only as an overrun.
“A” may be used only for taxiing; “E” may be used for all operations except landings.
“A” may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; “E” may be used only as an overrun.

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

8 nautical miles.
4 nautical miles.
6 nautical miles.

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

The aircraft on the left shall give way.
Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
The faster aircraft shall give way.

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

Poor visibility and smooth air.
Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?

Quartering headwind.
Quartering tailwind.
Direct crosswind.

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point.
If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet’s touchdown point.
Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of “antiauthority”?

Rules do not apply in this situation.
I know what I am doing.
Follow the rules.

Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
Airspeed only.
Altimeter only.

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

August 31, 1 year later.
August 31, 2 years later.
August 8, next year.

When density altitude is beyond capability as indicated on the performance chart,

interpolate the data and attempt takeoff.
extrapolate the data and attempt takeoff.
do not attempt takeoff until conditions permit calculations to provide the data to determine a safe takeoff and climb out.

What is meant by the term ‘dewpoint’?

The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
The temperature at which dew will always form.
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

(Refer to figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?

19 knots.
26 knots.
23 knots.

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

Coriolis force.
Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.
Variation of terrain elevation.

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to

Weather Depiction Chart.
Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.
ASOS/AWOS broadcasts.

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?

8,000 feet.
12,000 feet.
4,000 feet.

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

one time within four seconds.
three time within three seconds.
five times within five seconds.

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

Repair of landing gear brace struts.
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

the oil quantity being too low.
operating with a too high viscosity oil.
operating with an excessively rich mixture.

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

55 to 100 KTS.
55 to 208 KTS.
55 to 165 KTS.

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

one time within four seconds.
three time within three seconds.
five times within five seconds.

Uncontrolled airspace is

Class G airspace.
for flying VFR only.
primarily for instrument flight operations.

Airport diagrams can be used to enhance positional awareness while on the airport surface. Airport diagrams can be found on

Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs) and the Chart Supplement
Aviation Sectional Charts.
Terminal Area Charts

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

Upslope fog.
Rain-induced fog.
Steam fog.

(Refer to figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

Right aileron up, elevator up.
Right aileron up, elevator down.
Right aileron down, elevator neutral.

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as

hyperventilation.
aerotitis.
aerosinusitis.

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?

The yellow arc.
The green arc.
The white arc.

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

A private pilot acting as pilot in command, operating under the provisions of BasicMed is limited to an altitude of

10,000 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.
FL250.

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude: 7,500 ft Headwind: 8 kts Temperature: 32°F Runway: Hard surface

1,506 feet.
1,004 feet.
1,205 feet.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

are thunderstorms in the area.
is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.
has been cold frontal passage.

AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to

All pilots
only VFR pilots.
only IFR pilots.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
Airship.
Gyroplane.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

the oil quantity being too low.
operating with a too high viscosity oil.
operating with an excessively rich mixture.

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 22.) Weather information is available at the Coeur d’Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)

over the VOR frequency 108.8.
from AWOS 3 135.075.
from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

blue omnidirectional lights.
alternate red and green lights.
white directional lights.

Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

ADs are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately.
Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft unairworthy.
Compliance with ADs is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
lean the mixture.
apply carburetor heat.

While in cruise flight, a small fire burns the insulation from a transceiver wire and then puts itself out. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?

No notification or report is required.
A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours.
An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

7200.
7400.
7600.

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

blue omnidirectional lights.
alternate red and green lights.
white directional lights.

(Refer to figure 21.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.
2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.
sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.

An approved (standard nylon) chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

365 days.
180 days.
120 days.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at sea level is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F?

4,000 feet AGL.
5,000 feet AGL.
6,000 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 62.) In flying the rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?

Corner 1.
Corners 2 and 3.
Corner 3.

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft’s position, the aircraft must have a

VOR receiver and DME.
4096-code transponder.
VHF transmitter and receiver.

A pilot can develop good judgment

only through experience.
through structured training.
by accurately emulating their instructors actions.

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

1200.
7600.
7700.

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

30 days after the date of the move.
60 days after the date of the move.
90 days after the date of the move.

(Refer to figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

Runway 32.
Runway 6.
Runway 29.

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

the actual altitude above sea level.
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the

lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as broken, overcast, and not classified as thin or partial.
lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.
An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
lean the mixture.
apply carburetor heat.

(Refer to figure 18.) The IFR weather in northern Texas is due to

dust devils.
low ceilings.
intermittent rain.

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

pulsating white light.
pulsating red light.
steady white light.

What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?

Pilot performed maintenance does not need to be documented.
Only major repairs and alterations need to be documented.
The pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s maintenance records.

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot

be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
call “contact” before touching the propeller.
be at the controls in the cockpit.

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.

While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?

No notification or report is required.
A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours.
An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office.

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

pulsating white light.
pulsating red light.
steady white light.

(Refer to figure 22, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.
700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.
1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.
Stratus clouds with little vertical development.
Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.

(Refer to figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

Left aileron down, elevator down.
Left aileron up, elevator down.
Left aileron up, elevator neutral.

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

25 miles.
20 miles.
10 miles.

As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the susceptability of dehydration since the

dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of water loss from the body.
moist air at altitude helps retain the body’s moisture.
temperature decreases with altitude.

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,

the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information.
the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available.

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

mechanic who performed the work.
owner or operator.
pilot in command.

Climb performance depends upon the

reserve power or thrust.
maximum L/D ratio.
cruise power setting.

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

A decrease in relative humidity.
An increase in atmospheric pressure.
An increase in air temperature.

What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?

230° magnetic at 25 knots.
230° true at 32 knots.
230° true at 25 knots.

The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the

pilot in command.
safety officer.
ground crew.

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

pre-ignition.
detonation.
combustion.

What is the significance of solid green lines on the surface prognostic panels of low-level significant weather prognostic charts?

These outline areas of preciptiation
These are lines of constant barometric pressure (isobars)
These are lines of constant temperature (isotherms)

(Refer to figure 48.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position A.
Runway 30 is equipped at position D with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2016. The next inspection will be due no later than

September 1, 2018.
September 30, 2017.
September 30, 2018.

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

have no effect on engine performance.
decrease engine performance.
increase engine performance.

Determine the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).

148°.
153°.
158°.

You have just gone off of the runway and broken a runway light. You must make a report to the nearest NTSB field office

within 7 days.
within 10 days.
when requested.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

Airspeed indicator.
Altimeter.
Vertical-speed indicator.

(Refer to figure 48.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position A.
Runway 30 is equipped at position D with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

(Refer to figure 22, area 2; and figure 31.) At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

122.8 MHz.
135.075 MHz.
122.05 MHz.

(Refer to figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.
Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.
Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

Frequent lightning.
Roll cloud.
Continuous updraft.

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.

Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?

When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.
Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as

spatial disorientation.
hypoxia.
hyperventilation.

(Refer to figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?

Left aileron up, elevator down.
Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
Left aileron up, elevator neutral.

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
the designation of an alternate airport.
an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include:

Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves.
Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations.

(Refer to figure 82.) Altimeter 3 indicates

500 feet
1,500 feet
9,500 feet

To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have a course completion certificate that was issued by an approved medical training course provider within the past …

48 months.
24 months.
12 months.

(Refer to figure 36.) With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

Runway 24.
Runway 14.
Runway 10.

Some of the characteristics you would expect to see with an unstable air mass are

nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
turbulence and poor surface visibility.
turbulence and good surface visibility.

What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z on the 13th until the end of the forecast?

Variable in direction at 4 knots.
No significant wind.
Variable in direction at 6 knots.

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

8 hours.
24 hours.
12 hours.

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
lower cylinder head temperatures.
detonation.

Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?

For determining frontal trends and air mass characteristics.
For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.
For a forecast of cloud coverage, visibilities, and frontal activity.

Which publication contains explanations of airport signs and markings?

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
VFR Section Chart Legends
Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory or A/FD).

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

Every 24 months.
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

fuel strainer drain.
lowest point in the fuel system.
fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

141°.
331°.
321°.

Фразеология радиообмена – урок 1

Фразеология радиообмена – урок 1

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